Bible Truth Web Site
I am a new Christian and trying to get more truth/facts about baptism,I was a Hindu and I have given my life to Jesus. Matter of fact first I went to a Assembly of God and got baptized in Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, but a little while later I met some oneness Pentecostal Christians and they told me I was not saved and showed the all the scriptures and many who got baptized in the name of Jesus. Straight away I got baptized. Sorry for for my ignorance, I think some where in book of Mark it says- "he who believes and baptized is saved and he who doesn't is condemned". To me baptism in Jesus name is very important to one's salvation. What a do you think? and the other thing is I would like to ask when Jesus commanded his disciples to baptized in father/son/holy spirit then why did Peter did in Jesus name. To me it looks a bit confusing?
There are seven reasons that Acts 2:38 does not teach baptismal regeneration:
I have often had people of your persuasion use the same argument that baptism was not a work, but an act of obedience. Yet, the fact is baptism is a physical act in which one is immersed in water. Being immersed in water is a physical "act" and to say it is not a "work" is defies reason and logic. Yes, it is an act of obedience for the person who has been saved by faith. As I stated, before over sixty times the New Testament plainly states salvation received by faith....with no mention of baptism or any other act.
Using the fact that Satan believes in Jesus Christ is grasping at straws. Satan, knows who God is, but he rebelled against God because his belief was not a biblical faith of trust in the Lord for salvation, but only an intellectual knowledge of God.
Saving faith is trusting in Jesus Christ alone, a part from any work or act on our part, or any merit within ourselves....but in Jesus' death and suffering for our sins. He and He alone provides paid the penalty for sins and man does not add to that anything..... Salvation is totally the work of Jesus Christ through His grace as Ephesians 2:8-10 plainly states and many other passages of God's word.
Literally, what you are saying is that even if you believe totally in Jesus Christ and are not baptized then you die in your sins and go to hell. Therefore, plainly....faith alone, according to the teaching of baptismal regeneration, does not save...but faith, plus one's work of obedience in baptism. That teaching denies what God's word plainly teaches. Ephesians 2:8-10, Romans 4:5, Titus 3:5, etc all teach that salvation is not of works, (rituals, physical acts, or anything such thing). That soundly and absolutely precludes that one must be baptized to be saved.
You see the difference is between what you believe and what the Bible teaches and I believe is that I believed in Jesus Christ alone for my salvation. Through His grace, that day God washed away my sins, indwelled me, made me His child, and gave me eternal life. I followed the Lord's instructions and was baptized as a public declaration of my faith as the New Testament teaches. My baptism did not acquire my salvation. I do not account my act of being immersed in water as being a part of my salvation, but as a public witness and identification of myself as a born again believer, because to do so would mean that I by a work of my self, my baptism, I was saved. My outward act of being baptized attested to the reality of my faith.
However, those who believe in baptism being necessary for salvation, believe that if they are not baptized they are not saved and that it was baptism added to their faith that saved them. Thus, plainly their hope in salvation is not in their faith, but in their act of obedience to the Lord.
That is not what God says and it degrades Jesus' suffering and sacrifice for our sins by saying a sinner can do some act and God accounts that as meriting or earning the right to receive salvation. Salvation is by God's grace alone and is not merited by any act or work of a man.
Can you see the difference between the two teachings? I believe solely in Jesus Christ for atonement and receiving salvation based on His grace. I submitted to baptism because I truly believe in Jesus Christ for my salvation. I am not trusting my baptism, but Jesus' shed blood for my salvation. That is the major difference in our beliefs.
However, you believe that your act of being baptized, added to your faith, saved you. Without your baptism, you would be lost. That is a vast difference. That kind of faith, is only a partial one, because one must not only trust in Jesus' atoning for sins, but one's act of baptism also. The fact is that this false teachings says that salvation is not totally by grace...but by one's act of being baptized also. The teaching thus means in reality...it was baptism that saved....not by faith, because faith was not sufficient in itself to save. It took an act of man to actually acquire salvation and take away or pay the penalty for sin.
I was a sinner, lost in my sins, bound for hell. I was not worthy or able to do anything to save myself. Yet, our Gracious God and Creator, loved me, the sinner I was and died for my sins on the cross. I heard His offer of salvation if I would believe and receive it and I did. I did not merit, earn or deserve His grace, but I received it in faith and was saved. I was born again and I am bound for heaven, only a sojourner and pilgrim here.
The problem with the teaching of the necessity of baptism for salvation is that is first is not biblical being based on mis-interpretations of God's word. Further it is doctrinal unsound because it denies and contradicts the analogy of the faith.
Salvation is totally in Jesus Christ....not in some act of man, baptism, the Lord's supper, or any other act of obedience of man.
I have an article at http://bible-truth.org/baptreg.htm titled "Does the Bible say Baptism is Necessary for Salvation?" that will help you understand this important truth.
Remember the question to always ask is, "What does the passage mean", not, "What does it say?". For instance, Jesus seems to say in Luke 14:33 that one cannot be a disciple (Christian) unless he first gives away all his possessions. Obviously we have to interpret the verse in light of the context and in relation to the rest of Scripture.
First is the historical context. Jesus and the Gentile converts to Judaism were very familiar with the symbol of baptism for cleansing and separation. It was normal practice (Unger's Bible Dictionary, p. 122; New Bible Dictionary, Douglas, p. 131). John the Baptist continued the symbol of baptismal cleansing of repentance, but noted there was a baptism which superseded it -- that is baptism with the Holy Spirit (Mark 1:8).
The grammatical context is also important. A key word in Acts 2:38 for the baptismal salvation proponents is "for"; "baptized... for the forgiveness of sins." They insist that the meaning be interpreted "in order to obtain" the forgiveness of sins. The problem with this insistence is that the word "for" (eis, in Greek) has several connotations in New Testament Koine Greek. Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament says that eis is a versatile word which primarily "denotes entrance into, or direction and limit: into, to, toward, for, among," (p. 183).
In other words the symbol of baptism could either be pointing towards the cleansing and forgiveness (with reference to), or could pointing to the actual procuring of forgiveness (in order to).
Renowned Greek scholar A. T. Robertson states that not only does eis signify "aim or purpose" (in order to) as in 1 Corinthians 2:7, it can just as well mean "on the basis or ground of (with reference to). (See Matthew 10:41; 12:41) He states that, "the illustrations of both usages are numerous in the New Testament and the Koine (New Testament Greek) generally:
It is confusing to a new believer that there are many who say they are Christians, but teach different things. (Does the Bible say Baptism is Necessary for Salvation?) As my article explains the Bible says....that a person is saved by faith in Jesus Christ alone. That means God does not require us to do any ritual, good works or other religious act to be saved, have our sins forgiven and receive eternal life. Note what God says:
Ephesians 2:8-9 "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast."
Clearly God is saying that salvation is the free gift of God and God offers it to us by His grace. It is not something that has to be earned or worked for....or received by doing some ritual like baptism. The word "grace" means "unmerited, unearned or undeserved favor." It is God's free gift to us (Romans 5:15-18). So you cannot earn or merit a free gift can you? A gift is something freely given, because the one giving it simply wants to give it. We know that God who Created us loves us, and so in loving us and wanting the best for us...He offers us the free gift of salvation, forgiveness for our sins and eternal life.
However, if someone offers you a gift you can only have it if you accept it. So God offers us the free gift of salvation, and we trusting in God, believing who He is, and accepting that the Lord Jesus Christ died for our sins, by faith we receive God's gift of salvation. God's word says we are all sinners and we believe what God says. So knowing we are sinners, we by faith accept salvation from God. That is how a person is saved and there is no work, ritual and anything else required on our part for us to be saved.
Now we come to the question about baptism. Yes, the Lord wants us to be baptized, but we must understand what baptism is. Baptism, by immersion (placed under the water) is our outward side that pictures what God did for us. It pictures Christ's death, burial and resurrection. Being placed in the water, symbolizes Christ's death in which He took our death. Being raised out of the water shows Christ's resurrection from the grave in which He proved He was God our Lord and Savior. His death, in which is suffered for our sins on the cross, His burial and resurrection is the only basis of salvation.
Think for a moment....He did it all for us didn't He. 1 John 2:2 tells us Jesus paid it all for us.."And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world." The word "propitiation" means "full payment." In other words Jesus made the full payment for our sins....that leaves nothing for us to pay for, nothing more we owe or must do.
His suffering for our sins paid for all our sins. So clearly account to God's own word....we can do nothing ourselves to save ourselves. We cannot pay for our sins.....Jesus Christ did that and we cannot do any ritual, like baptism, or anything else to earn our salvation. Further we cannot add to what Jesus did. These people you talked with, who told you that you have to be baptized to be saved. are false teachers. They are falsely telling you that you must add your work or act of baptism to what Jesus did on the cross when He suffered and died for our sins.
We submit to baptism because it shows what has already happened in our hearts.....we have believed and in baptism we publicly testify that we have believed in Jesus Christ for our salvation and also that we are joining in with other believers in our local church. That is what Acts 2:41 says, "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls."
Acts 2:38, Mark 16:16 are a little confusing in English because they seem to say that a person must believe and be baptized for salvation. But that not what God said. In the Greek text that the New Testament was written us the word "for" in Acts 2:38, means to be baptized "because of" or "on account of" your repentance for sins. It does not mean that one must both repent and also be baptized to be saved. In Mark 16:16, note what the verse actually says...."Mark 16:16 "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." Did you note that God says the reason a person is damned is because he did not believe.....if does not say because he did not believe and did not get baptized.
Let me ask you a question? Would God contradict Himself, tell us one thing in one place and something different in another? For example. Note what Acts 10:43 says, "To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins." God says here and over sixty times in the New Testament that a person who believes is the one who is saved and whose sins are remittedn. There is no mention of any requirement for baptism. Would it make any sense that God is trying to tell a person how to be saved and that He would leave out part of the requirement? Clearly the answers is NO! Baptism is an important step in the life of one who has believed....but it does not save us.....it only shows we have believed and are already saved.
One thing the Devil always tries to do is confuse a new Christian. The Devil has the cults, false churches, and false teachers ready to mislead anyone who believes in Jesus Christ. Sadly, you have run into some of the Devil's false teachers and he has used them to try and deceive you, but God loves you and has lead you to this web site so that you could be pointed to God's truth....His very Word the Bible. God's word is truth and only it can tell us what is right and wrong. A church or person that does not preach God's truth....is serving the Devil. Yes, these people may look good and talk like they really know the Bible....but sadly they themselves are deceived. The best thing you can do is avoid them completely....they are misleading you.
In Matthew 28:19-20 Jesus clearly said we were to be baptized in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Clearly the disciple did as Christ taught and did what He said.
Peter in Acts 2:38 is telling the people they were to be baptized in the name of Jesus.....which means as Jesus had told them in Matthew 28:19-20. Peter was not changing what Jesus said, but stating the basis of salvation was in Jesus Christ. He was pointing out that the reason for baptism was Jesus Christ and His atoning work.
Can you see that these Pentecosts, do not really understand God's word the Bible. Do you think that Peter would disobey the Lord's command and "only" baptized in "Jesus' name" or that Peter would start something different from Jesus said? Jesus Christ is the LORD and Peter followed Him....he obeyed his Lord. When Jesus gave the command in Matthew 28:19-20, Peter was there and was one of the disciple to whom Jesus was speaking to. In Acts 2:38, Peter simply did not state that we baptism in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. For the Pentecostals to teach this is foolish and shows their ignorance of God's word. God the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are One God and cannot be separated like some Pentecostals do. It is so sad that the Pentecostals, as Paul said about the Jews In Romans 10:2 "For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge." They seem to be really devoted people, but they sadly do not know the Bible as is shown this false teaching and in their practice of unbiblical tongues.
I strongly urge you to find a good Bible believing Baptist Church and preferable an Independent Fundamental Baptist Church that will teach you God's word. They will help you greatly to live for the Lord and you can also be a blessing to them as you too serve the Lord and God uses you to lead others to find Jesus Christ as their Savior.
This is a really long e-mail to explain this, but it so important that you grow in the Lord as a new Christian and you can only grow if you believe and live by God's truth.
No, I am not saying the KJV is in error. This should be clear to anyone who reads my many articles and statements about the accuracy and preservation of God's word in the KJV. I did not say it was in error, nor is the KJB incorrect. What I said was that it could be more accurately translated "because of." Lets make that clear. Why do I say this? In modern English the verse is often misunderstood because of the way the preposition "for" is normally used and understood in modern English. In modern English "for" commonly means "with the object or purpose of, as to run 'for' exercise." Example: "I will give you a quarter 'for' an apple." In other words the quarter pays for the apple.
However, it can also equally mean in English "with regard too" or "by reason of" or "because of". For example: "to shout for joy." Here the sentence means the shout was 'on account of' or 'because of' the joy. Those who purport the doctrine of baptismal regeneration understand "eis" as purposive or causative. However, another perfectly valid interpretation is that "eis" can mean the basis or ground on which baptism is performed. The determination of which is the correct usage depends on other elements such and syntax and the analogy of the faith. Greek is not constrained with rules of word order in the same ways as English and therefore the interruption of the natural word order in English is often normal in Greek.
In English the phrase “for the forgiveness of your sins” may be connected to either “repent,” “be baptized,” or both. The best textual evidence supports the presence of umwn (of your) as a modifier of “sins” in Acts 2:38. New Testament syntax supports this position as well. Concerning the antecedent of umwn, there is no evidence to support the contention that “forgiveness of sins” modifies the command to be baptized. In other New Testament passages on forgiveness, repentance, and water baptism, it becomes increasingly difficult to find support for the doctrine of baptismal regeneration. Of course this does not dilute the significance of Christian water baptism, for as Bruce says, “the idea of an unbaptized Christian is simply not entertained in the New Testament.” Today, as then, baptism remains a unique testimony of the life-transforming change brought about by the regenerating work of the Holy Spirit in the believer. In water baptism a believer identifies with Jesus Christ in an action that symbolizes the shared experience of death and resurrection with and in Him. (Bibliotheca Sacra, Vol. 153#609, January-March 1996. Luther B. McIntyre Jr., "Baptism and Forgiveness in Acts 2:38", p55, 62)
Therefore, grammatically this verse, and also Mark 1:4, and Luke 3:3 which use "eis", are not teaching baptism as necessary for salvation, but that baptism follows salvation and is done on account of receiving remission of sins. It confusing for us in English, but it certainly was not to the those who understood Greek and the English uses of the preposition "for".
So, I am not in error when I say that the verse could be correctly translated "because of or on account of" and I am simply recognizing that if the verse read: "Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ "because of" your remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost" there would be less confusion about the matter of baptism. Both "for" and "because of" are accurate translations.
Why do you say the preposition "for" in Acts 2:38 can be more accurately translated "because of." Are you saying our KJV Bible is in error?
Answer:
Both Acts 2:38 and 22:16 which are used to teach baptism for salvation. The fact is that in both these verses are English translations of the Greek text. In the Greek text the words "Repent, and be baptized" (2:38) and "be baptized, and wash away thy sins" (Acts 22:16) are aroist participles and are antecedent (preceding) in action to the action of the verbs. An accurate translation is "Having arisen, be baptize as they sins are washed away since you have believed on the name of the the Lord" (Acts 22:16) Salvation precedes baptism. Acts 2:38 " Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ on "account or your" the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
1. The preposition "for" in 2:28 is more accurately translated "on account of" or "because of." Regeneration and baptism are not presented in the New Testament as co-tereminus and synonymous.
Grammatically, Acts 22:16 cannot be used to teach baptism for the reason stated above.
2. The promise of Acts 2:39 refers to salvation promised from the Old Testament which did not include baptism.
3. The conclusion of Acts 2:36 had to be received only by faith, as not one can call Jesus Lord except through the work of the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:3, Romans 10:9-10).
4. The Apostle's teaching Acts 2:42a consisted of their writings which were based salvation on faith.
5. The divine order of Acts 2:41. They received his word in faith (cf 4:4) and then were baptized.
6. They "believed" (v44).
7. "Those being saved" in verse 47 were added to those already saved before Pentecost. How were they saved...by faith apart from works.
Answer:
Almost weekly someone writes with a comment like yours always criticizing me for not knowing the Bible. Well, I have a lot to learn, a few things I know. Acts 2:38 does not teach that a person must be baptized to have his sins forgiven. Notice that on the surface it seems to prove your point, but not when one applies sound principles of interpretation.
"One will decide the use here (Acts 2:38) according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins..." (Word Pictures of the New Testament, pp. 35-36).
Why do the overwhelming percentage of Greek scholars agree with Robertson? Because the rest of Scripture refutes baptismal regeneration. All one has to do is read Acts 10, concerning the account of Peter taking the gospel (which saves, Romans 1:16), to Cornelius and the Gentiles. As Peter proceeds through the gospel message (vs. 34-43), the Scriptures relate that the gift of the Holy Spirit was received upon believing by these Gentiles before they were baptized in water (10:44-48; 11:17-18). Additionally, the Scripture teaches that this is the same way all are saved (Acts 11:15-18, 15:7-11).
Answer:
Answer: