Does God kill sinning Christians?
I was wandering whether you can tell me - How long was Noah in the Ark for?
Where in the Bible (KJV) does it say that "tongues should cease."
Where does the apostolic churches get their reasoning for calling their pastors apostles?
Could you please explain Matthew 12:43-45?
Why are the sins of the father passed down.
Can you please explain John 8:56 to me?
Could you please explain Matthew 13:12 to me. I never seem to understand the meaning behind it.
What does Proverbs 23:31 mean?
Who put the chapter and verse divisions in the Bible and when?
Colossians 2:8 instructs us to "Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ." But isn't philosophy using logic and reason to deduce something? How are we supposed to reason from the Bible without using philosophy?
Could you explain the 7 extra books in the Catholic Bible and why they should not be included?
Does the Bible speak of the earth as flat or round?
Are Dinosaurs mentioned in the Bible?
Does the Bible contradict itself when it says no man has seen God and also says Moses saw Him?
If the Bible gives such a secure base, why are there so many religions?
Can you explain to me why you think Matthew 19:14,Mark 10:14 and Luke 18:16 say the same thing?
How do we get the New and Old Testament canon if it is not told to us in the Bible.
III. Evidences from Astronomy.
A. In ancient times people believed the earth was either flat, or a flat earth under a globe. They thought if you went to the edge of the earth you would fall off. The Greeks thought the earth was flat under a globe which was supported by a huge stick through the center that rotated.
Only until Copernicus, who lived between 1473 to 1543 AD, did anyone suspect a round earth. He was condemned as heretic and as a man out of his mind. Further the Roman Catholic church tried to have him killed! Today we fully understand that the earth is round, and is a planet of the Sun, a star of the galaxy the Milky Way which is a part of the universe.
B. Job 22:12, stated that the earth was in the a vast and distant universe. Isaiah declared the earth was a sphere. (Isa. 40:22a) and Job added the earth rotates on an axis and states "He (God) hangeth the earth upon nothing" (Job 26:7.)
C. Science is always trying to measure the universe, and always finding new evidence that its calculations are wrong and need upgrading. Jeremiah 31:37, speaks of the vastness of space and says that it can not be measured! This verse says man will never be able to measure it, because God has promised never to set Israel aside.
Jeremiah 33:22, also added that science will never be able to count the stars. Every time science has even made an estimate, they discover a new method of investigation and a new "estimate" is made. Science's use of the new infra red telescope satellite has opened the door now to billions of stars and galaxies that were not know to exist.
The orbits of the stars, and planets are absolute and science can predict their exact location in the sky at any point in time. Jer. 31:35-37, stated this scientific fact over 2500 years ago!
D. In the past it was thought the Sun revolved around the Earth, yet, the Psalmist correctly stated that the earth rotates around the Sun (Psa. 19:6).
E. Man thought in days past that the moon glowed and produced light. Job knew better over 3000 years ago and in Job 25:5a, states the moon is not an luminous body.
Job 40:15 "Behold now behemoth, which I made with thee; he eateth grass as an ox."
Job 41:1 "Canst thou draw out leviathan with an hook? or his tongue with a cord which thou lettest down?"
Psalms 74:14 "Thou brakest the heads of leviathan in pieces, and gavest him to be meat to the people inhabiting the wilderness."
Psalms 104:26 "There go the ships: there is that leviathan, whom thou hast made to play therein."
Isaiah 27:1 "In that day the LORD with his sore and great and strong sword shall punish leviathan the piercing serpent, even leviathan that crooked serpent; and he shall slay the dragon that is in the sea."
Most of them were destroyed in the Great Flood of Noah's day. The reason that we find fossilized dinosaur bones in sedimentary rock is that the sediment was deposited by the Flood which rapidly buried many animals in the earth. Noah must have had baby dinosaurs on the ark with him because Job knew about dinosaurs and lived after the Flood. They escaped the Flood by being in the Ark, but because the Flood changed the whole climate and face of the earth they did not prosper as well after the Flood because the drastic change in the climatic of earth over and eventually died out. There are reports of men seeing dinosaurs after 800 AD! The same forces that killed the dinosaurs even today is continuing as species of animals because of climate change are still becoming extinct.
There are also frequent references to "dragons" in the early history of man. These dragons certainly look like dinosaurs and acted like them. There are even a few cave paintings which show dinosaur type animals drawn by cave men.
Nebuchadnezzar had a dragon named Sirrush carved in the Ishtar Gate in Babylon. In China, Japan dragons are revered and considered good luck. Ancient stories said that dragons laid eggs...and so do dinosaurs! Is it not interesting that these ancient people would state that dragons laid eggs. It has only be in the last century that fossilized dinosaur eggs have been discovered! There is the story of St. George who slayed a dragon and he lived between the years AD 250 and 300. The story says the people of the area fed the dragon two sheep a day to keep it from eating them. In the Congo in Africa when natives were shown pictures of a dinosaur they said they had seen them in the remote areas of the jungle and had a name for them.
Yes, dinosaurs once roamed the earth with men. Evolution teaches the earth is millions of years old and the dinosaurs did not live with man. This is totally false as it contradicts true science and the Bible.
This is a very brief explanation of the subject, but there are some good web sites you might like to visit which has articles on subject of Creation. Try:
Bible Truth Web Site: I have a Bible study on the first twelve chapters of the Book of Genesis. You can find it at http://bible-truth.org/biblesty.htm/gen1.htm .
The sad thing about today is that our schools are teaching evolution as a scientific fact when there is absolutely no evidence of evolution in the fossil record or anywhere else. True empirical science does not support evolution and today. Darwinism is being seriously questioned by many in the scientific community who are honest enough to admit it. However, there are those scientists who deny the existence of God and to them their religion is evolution. To deny the Creator and His creation they must conclude that the world happened totally by chance and therefore if there is no Creator God then they not responsible to Him. How sad to willingly blind one's self to the truth.
However, in the Old Testament, there are several times when men are said to have seen God. See Gen. 32:30, Ex. 24:9-10, 33:11, Judges 13:22, Isa. 6:1, Dan. 7:9. Some of these are clearly "visions." The others are called "theophanies" in which God appeared in appearance as having corporeity, in transiently-assumed visible human form. In other words God appeared to men in the Old Testament in a visible material form so they could see Him, however they were not seeing God in His true essence as spirit. I believe it can be shown that the theophanies of the Old Testament were pre-incarnate appearances of Jesus the Messiah.
John 1:18 is true as no man has or can see God in His true essence as spirit.
Man lives in a limited physical and material world God created that exists materially in time and space. God is not limited by time, matter or space, as He is a spirit being. The spiritual world in which the Lord exists in is not like this physical world we live in. We, being material, cannot see the spiritual world. The only reference in the Bible that gives any description is John 3:8, which says that the Spirit is like the wind, we can see its effects but not the wind itself.
If the Bible contains errors, then none of it cannot be trusted. It is interesting to me, and I believe reveals the true carnal nature of man, that he spends so much time trying to find some obscure discrepancy and ignores the great volume of unquestionable truth that man is a sinner and needs to be saved. 1 Cor. 2:14, says a carnal the Word of God is "foolishness" to the carnal man, and that he cannot understand the Word of God because it is spiritually discerned. God has provided the way that a man by believing God and in His Son the Lord Jesus Christ, can repent of his sin, and accept God's unmerited favor (Grace) and receive forgiveness of sin and eternal life. The effort to prove God wrong is a futile pursuit. If a man could prove God wrong, he would in fact be cutting himself off from his only means of salvation.
There are a number of books written on the subject. One I use often is "An Examination of the Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible" by John W. Haley. The book addresses hundreds of alleged discrepancies and gives clear explanations.
Let me conclude by saying that there are many things about God we do not know because God has chosen not to reveal them to us. I cannot explain the Trinity, but it is a true fact because God has revealed it to us. Most things we know about God are "revealed" truth. That means that from man's knowledge, experience and intelligence he cannot arrive at a true understanding of who and what God is apart from God revealing it to him. Even in our material world we have much we do not understand. For example: No one on the earth can truly explain gravity. We see its effects and what it does, but we cannot see it or even explain it. We accept it because it is revealed to be real because we see what it does. In a similar way, we believe in God, because we can see what He has done and what He has revealed to us, although we cannot physically see Him.
Matthew 27:5, says that Judas took the thirty pieces of silver and went and hanged himself. Acts 1:18-19, says he purchased a field with the silver and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.
Neither of these statements excludes the other from being true. Matthew does not deny that Judas hanged himself and afterwards his body fell and burst asunder, he just does not mention it. Peter who is preaching in Acts 1, does not say that Judas did not hang himself previous to his fall, he just does not mention it. Let me ask you a question, did not Matthew and Peter know the circumstances first hand. And did not all the people in Jerusalem know what happened also? Each writer under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit was led to record the details of the event as applied to his account. Why would Peter (Peter told Luke who wrote Acts) or Matthew, who were both eye witnesses make up a false tell. Also, both Luke (who wrote Acts) and Matthew had access to the other's Gospel. They were both written around 60-61 AD. Luke got his information directly from Peter whom he knew personally. Why did they not correct one another if there was a discrepancy or why did not the men of their day make note of the supposed error. Also, all the manuscripts have the same rendering of each account.
Let me add also this vital point...both Gospels were written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit and it was God who determine what would be recorded in each account. The Bible clearly states that God superintended the writing of this two Gospels and certainly God made no error (2 Tim. 3:16-18, 2 Pet. 1:21).
Probably Judas went and first took the money back to the temple. However, this was "blood money" and the temple officials could not lawfully put it in the treasury of the temple. So refusing to keep it he went out and spent it buying a "potters" field which was to be used for burying poor people. Some believe that it was actually the priests who purchased the field in Judas's name. It is a idiom of Scripture by which an action is sometimes said to be done by a person who was the occasion of its being done. Either case is plausible and neither account is a contradiction of the other.>
Could not Judas have hanged himself and then the rope broke and he fell and burst open, or that his body decomposed and later fell broke open. Could not that have been what the people Peter was address would best remember?
We see in different daily news accounts different eye witnesses giving different details of the same event and we accept it for what it was...two eye witnesses who reported different details of the same event. Where is the discrepancy? Where is the evidence from history that anybody until modern times even questioned these two accounts of the same event. The answer is there is none.
You said, "I am curious if these are errors or inaccuracies show that there are small errors in the Bible." I say, still there are no errors. The error is in judging God's Word to be in error without a thorough investigation and discounting what God said about Him preserving His Word without error.
God does not tell us to believe the Bible in blind faith, but to test it and examine the great and overwhelming evidence of its infallibility. As I said before, I have studied the Bible for over twenty years, and I have never found any supposed discrepancy that did not have a clear explanation.
I posted a new subject to my web page entitled "How we got the Bible." It would help in your understanding to read this material. It was written on the level of a normal Sunday School class and does not go into great depth, but it does give an good overall picture of how the Bible came to us.
God first gave the Sabbath as a duty to man in the book of Exodus. It is true that the Sabbath originated at the completion of the creation (Gen.. 2:1-3), but that was God's rest, not man's. There is no record in Genesis that God gave the Sabbath to man, and there is no record of men keeping the Sabbath before Israel in the wilderness. Neh. 9:13,14 plainly states that the Sabbath was first given to Israel. Some teach that men kept the Sabbath from the days of Adam onward, but this is contrary to the Bible's own record.
Ex. 31:12-18 says the Sabbath was a special sign between God and Israel. If mankind in general had been given the Sabbath following creation, it could not have been a sign for Israel. The fact is that the Sabbath belongs to the nation Israel and not to any other people. It is also important to note that the Sabbath will be an eternal possession of Israel (Ex. 31:16). This sign will never be annulled or transferred to another people. This explains why the prophets foretell that Israel will keep the Sabbath even after the kingdom of Christ is established on earth (Isa. 66:23). It also explains why Jesus Christ mentioned the Sabbath in His prophecies of the Tribulation (Matt. 24:20). Israelites in the land of Palestine still keep the Sabbath today.
In their writings to the churches, the Apostles only mentioned the Sabbath three times. (1) The Sabbath is a symbol of salvation rest in Christ (Heb. 4). (2) The N.T. believer is not bound to keep the Sabbath (Col. 2:9-17). (3) The N.T. believer has liberty in the matter of holy days (Rom.. 14). Those who teach that the Sabbath is binding upon the Christian, are teaching contrary to what the Apostles taught.
Why, then, did Jesus keep the Sabbath? He kept the Sabbath for the same reason He kept all the other Mosaic laws. He also observed the feasts. Jesus did these things because He was born a Jew, born under the law, that He might fulfill it and redeem His people from its penalty and bondage (Gal. 4:4; Rom.. 9:5)
The New Testament clearly says believers in the churches, worshiped on the first day of the week Sunday.
Please note the following:
Christians worship the Lord on this day because of the following Bible facts:
BIBLE EVIDENCE THAT EARLY CHRISTIANS WORSHIPPED ON SUNDAY:
Since those days, the vast majority of Christians have always met to worship on the Lord's day. They do this in honor of the resurrection of their Savior. Christ was in the tomb during the Sabbath, and rose as the firstborn from the dead on the first day. The Sabbath signifies the last day of the old creation (Gen. 2:2). Sunday is the first day of the new creation.
HISTORICAL EVIDENCE THAT EARLY CHRISTIANS WORSHIPED ON SUNDAY.
Following are quotes from what are called the church fathers of the end of the 1st Century and later and show it was the practice of the early church worship on Sunday:
The Epistle of Barnabas (about A.D. 100). "Wherefore, also we keep the eighth day with joyfulness, the day also on which Jesus rose again from the dead."
The Epistle of Ignatius (about A.D. 107). "Be not deceived with strange doctrines, nor with old fables, which are unprofitable. For if we still live according to the Jewish Law, we acknowledge that we have not received grace ... If, therefore, those who were brought up in the ancient order of things have come to the possession of a new hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lord's Day, on which also our life has sprung up again by Him and by His death."
Justin Martyr (about A.D. 140). "And on the day called Sunday all who live in cities or in the country gather together in one place, and the memoirs of the apostles or the writings of the prophets are read. ... But Sunday is the day on which we all hold a common assembly, because it is the First day of the week on which God ... made the world; and Jesus Christ our Savior on the same day rose from the dead."
Bardesanes, Edessa (A.D. 180). "On one day the first of the week, we assemble ourselves together."
Clement of Alexandria (A.D. 194). "He, in fulfillment of the precept, according to the gospel, keeps the Lord's Day [the Lord's day refers to the day He arose which is Sunday]... glorifying the Lord's resurrection in himself."
Tertullian (A.D. 200). "We solemnize the day after Saturday in contradiction to those who call this day their Sabbath."
Irenaeus (about A.D. 155-202). "The Mystery of the Lord's Resurrection may not be celebrated on any other day than the Lord's Day, and on this alone should we observe the breaking off of the Paschal Feast."
Cyprian (A.D. 250). "The eighth day, that is, the first day after the Sabbath, and the Lord's Day."
Apostolic Constitutions (A.D. 250). "On the day of the resurrection of the Lord--that is, the Lord's Day--assemble yourselves together without fail, giving thanks to God and praising Him for those mercies God has bestowed upon you through Christ."
Anatolius (A.D. 270). "Our regard for the Lord's resurrection which took place on the Lord's Day will lead us to celebrate it."
Peter, Bishop of Alexandria (A.D. 306). "But the Lord's Day we celebrate as a day of joy, because on it, he rose again."
In closing God says in Colossians 2:16 "Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the Sabbath days."
Christians, not being Jews and under the law, worship on Sunday the day the Lord Jesus arose from the grave, victorious over sin and death. Keeping the Sabbath was part of the Old Testament Law. Note what God says:
Romans 6:14 "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace."
Galatians 5:18 "But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law."
Well this is a brief answer, but I think covers the matter and I certainly hope it answers your question and helps you with the matter. Sadly, many sincere people are misled and make much of worshipping on the Sabbath, but as you see it was not a command given to Christians and was not practiced in the early church who met on Sunday.
(Part of the material above is from the Way of Life Encyclopedia by David Cloud.)
Psalms 77:10 "And I said, This is my infirmity: but I will remember the years of the right hand of the most High."; Isaiah 48:12-13 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last. Mine hand also hath laid the foundation of the earth, and my right hand hath spanned the heavens: when I call unto them, they stand up together."
2 Corinthians 6:7 "By the word of truth, by the power of God, by the armour of righteousness on the right hand and on the left")
The right hand was used to show loyalty, "raise you right hand" ; of hospitality "waving or saluting with the right hand", of being trust worthy:
Genesis 14:22 "And Abram said to the king of Sodom, I have lift up mine hand unto the LORD, the most high God, the possessor of heaven and earth, "
Standing or being seated at one's right hand is regarded as place of honor:
The Bible says that Jesus is at the right hand of God.
1 Peter 3:22 "Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him."
In a nutshell there are more than 5000 manuscripts dating from the 1st Century onward with which modern translations can be compared and their accuracy determined. In addition, there are large numbers of Lectionaries (1st and 2nd century sermons or written lessons) which quote a great portion of the Bible. Almost all the New Testament and a part of the Old Testament can be found in these documents. The Dead Sea Scrolls contain almost all the Old Testament and predate the time of Christ. Thus, we are not lacking in manuscript evidence from which we can make comparisons.
I realize that many of the modern (recent) translations do not have the accuracy of the King James Version of the Bible which is based on the Greek "Textus Receptus." In fact all modern translations are based on the faulty work of two unsaved men named Westcott and Hort. Their method of examining the Bible is called "Higher Criticism" and they accepted many of the errors of the early Catholic scribes and others which put them in their translations. Any knowledgeable Christian rejects these corrupt translations.
Some have made critical statements and brought the King James Version into question. In truth there are few places in the KJV that are at variance with the the Greek manuscripts. They are so few that they are minuscule and involve spelling, numbers, etc. The location of each one is known and we know what the original said. Not one of them affects any doctrine of the Bible. Nothing is lost or changed. Also, many Bibles will identify these variant readings in their marginal notes.
For example Rev. 22:19, the verse should read "tree of life" not "book of life." We know how this happened. Erasmus who translated what has been called the Textus Receptus (Received Text) used the Latin Vulgate to translate the Book of Revelation, because he did not have any Greek manuscripts of it available. He used the Latin Vulgate which was translated from the Greek New Testament. In Latin there is only one letter different between the words "tree" and "book." All the Greek manuscripts say "tree." Thus, we know we have a copyist error. Nothing has been lost, as we know where and what the correct reading is. It affects no doctrine and also we know how it should read. Scholars know that there is only variation in about 3 per cent of the of the Bible. The three percent are all copyist errors or variants in spelling punctuation and etc. It is just not true that we have lost the true Bible. Modern publishers have produced versions which contain mis-translations. However, we know how and where they went amiss. As a Bible believing Christian, and pastor, I warn men of these corrupted translations.
However, to say the Bible cannot be trusted because someone has released a poor translation of it is totally inaccurate and untrue. A translation can be a poor one, but it does not effect the fact there is an accurate translation in English, which is the King James Version. Also, there are 6000 extant Greek manuscripts that exist which we can use for comparison. These have not and will not be lost. God promised to preserve His Word for us and that is "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." (Matthew 24:35) "But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you." (1 Peter :25)
I believe in the biblical doctrine of the inspiration of Scripture. This doctrine is referred to as "verbal plenary inspiration." Verbal refers to the very words of the Scriptures and the word "plenary" means "full" and when combined they mean that every word of Scripture was inspired by God.
The Bible passages that teach this truth say, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (2 Timothy 3:16) The phrase "given by inspiration of God" literally means, "God-breathed."
Further the Bible says, "For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost." (2 Peter 1:21) God-breathed the very word of God in full expression of His thoughts in what the writer of Scripture wrote. This means that every word that was written was the mind of God without error. In other words, although the Bible was penned by men, it was superintended by God without any error.
God guided them in the choice of every word and expression. This does not mean God did not allow for personality and cultural background of the writer to be used in expressing God's words. God allowed the writers to express His thoughts in the writer's own way.
The key to this matter is what the Bible says about itself. It tells us how men were able to write God's very word. II Tim. 3:16, states ALL Scripture was "God-breathed." Of the many men who God used to write the Bible it can be found that they all had something in common and that was God spoke through them! The Bible is in complete unity and order with itself. All the sixty six books agree with the others, and there is not even one contradiction. If the Bible were the product of man and God had not completely directed the whole of the writing over the 1500 years it was being written, it could not have such unity. But you see God was the Author of the Bible, and His process of directing the writers produced a complete and correct revelation. Man does change, but God never changes, past, present or future. The Bible is a perfect Book in the original autographs, and is perfectly preserved today.
Click here to go to the Way of Life Home page which has more material on this subject.
Note what Romans 1:18-32, and John 3:16-19 says:
Romans 1:18-32:
John 3:16-19:
Basically man is a sinner...that is his nature. John 3:19, says "This is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather that light because their deeds were evil." Sadly, the nature of men is to reject God and His truth! The natural man, which means a man with his nature to sin, does not want to repent and turn from sin. Still deep down we know there is more to our existence than just this life. So to satisfy man's need to justify their sin and continue in it and still get to heaven, they invent false religion or gods to appease themselves.
A friend of mine suggests another reason for so many different churches. She uses the illustration of a class of history students answering questions on an exam and all missing different questions. Some studied more carefully and diligently than others. She also adds that many people, including church leaders, do not know the common sense rules of interpreting Scripture. If you incorrectly interpret the Bible you will have false beliefs taught.
The God of the Bible stands alone as a God of love and grace. All the gods men have contrived are always made in the image of man, or god men. Man's gods are always made like himself. It is not man's nature to forgive and offer unmerited favor (Grace) and thus the gods he invents know nothing of grace either. That is why all false religions are "works" based. That means they teach to some degree man must work for or earn his salvation. Man in human thought can save himself. They will acknowledge the grace of God, but make receiving God's grace dependent on earning it to some degree. Ephesian 2:8-9, clearly teach that salvation is the gift of God received by faith and not of works.
Most will teach that church membership, baptism, religious rituals, etc are sacraments which are vital to receiving grace. Classic examples are the Roman Catholic Church, Christ of Christ, and the cults such as the Mormons, Jehovah's Witnesses, Seventh Day Adventists, etc.
If the Bible is properly and correctly interpreted....and would be accepted there would be no denominations or false religions.
By the way, God did not save me because I became a Baptist. He saved me as an individual person. God's salvation is not in becoming a Baptist or any other religious denomination or group. I became an Independent Fundamental Baptist after God saved me because I wanted to attend a church that was doctrinally correct. I became a Baptist out of conviction because I know the Baptists historically love, believe and teach the Word of God. Even then I did not have to pray and ask which church was better. The Baptist church, by and large (not all) are Bible centered folks dedicated to teaching and living by the Word of God. I compared them with other groups and churches and found the others came up lacking in a devotion to the Scriptures. I love my Savior, and I love His Word, which is the spiritual food that feeds my soul. That's why I am a Baptist.
I am not proud of some things done by Baptists. There are those who are not truly Baptists because the do not love the Bible as Baptists have traditionally done. What makes a Baptist right that they believe God's word and how they live by it, not in their identification as Baptists.
For a more detailed answer go to click here.
Vine's Expository Dictionary gives the following definition:
The Bible Knowledge Commentary says "(2) Knowledge (gnosis) refers to the ability to apply doctrinal truth to life. Paul also exercised and expressed this gift in this letter (e.g., 12:1-3; 11:3). (Cf. the recurrence of the phrase “Do you not know” in 3:16; 5:6; 6:2-3, 9, 15-16, 19; 9:13, 24; also cf. 8:1-3, 10-11).
(The mysteries of the Gospel would refer to truths revealed in the NT that were not known or revealed in the OT. For example, the "ekklesia", that Jews and Gentiles are equal in the Gospel, etc.)
Albert Barnes explains it this way:
The TV preachers are totally misusing the phrase "word of knowledge." The word "knowledge" is the Greek word gnosis gno’-sis and refers to intelligence or ability to explain spiritual truths already revealed in God's word. It is has absolutely nothing to do with what the TV evangelists such as Pat Robinson, CBN and other false teachers are doing. The term "word of knowledge" is only used once in the New Testament and is not presented as a gift whereby one person knows that there is someone somewhere who has a particular need. This gift dealt with imparting spiritual truths. In fact what would be the purpose of such a gift in the early church when there were no televisions or TV evangelists? It is a total fabrication and perversion of the biblical gift of a word of knowledge.
This shows the evil and cunning ways of the false teacher who will use any lie to mislead people and dupe them out of their money. The TV evangelists use the term to say they had a "word of knowledge" that someone had some particular need or that was in some situation. There is no example in the New Testament of such a thing happening. They then tell their TV audience that God told them specifically about that need or situation. Friends, believe me, this is a tactic used by a con artist. When thousands or millions of people are watching them, no matter what their "word of knowledge" is, it will probably apply to someone listening and that person(s) is misled to think God told the TV "minister" something about them personally. For example: "I have just received a word of knowledge that there is someone who has just received word they have cancer." There would surely be many people who were watching that probably had just received that information and the TV preacher knows this. These religious con artists are lying and God condemns liars and tells us the Devil is the father of all liars.
James 5:13-14 is what God instructs us today to do when someone is sick. The sick person goes to his local pastor and church and asks them to pray for him. He does not go to a TV set or some TV evangelist/healer and seek help. He goes to his local church and pastor. He also is to go to the doctor and take his medicine (anointing with oil). God says the prayer of the local church is God's plan for seeing the sick healed.
By the way.....if any evangelist or ministry is basing its existence on you giving to it and constantly hawking about giving the money....it is not of God. NO WHERE IN THE BIBLE WAS HEALING ASSOCIATED WITH SOMEONE GIVING MONEY. That is not found anywhere in the Bible!!! You look it up and do a study yourself. God's plan for Christians is to be ministered to through their local church....not some TV preacher or evangelist who perverts God's word for personal gain. Do a little investigation about the financial status of these TV preachers. You shouldn't be surprised to find they are all millionaires living on the money people sent them to supposedly do God's work. If the ministry or preacher is operating outside the control, authority and direction of a local church the Bible says God is not in it! The modern "word of knowledge" is unbiblical and is actually a tactic of the religious con artists.
“A book is not the Word of God because it is accepted by the people of God. Rather it was accepted by the people of God because it is the Word of God. That is, God gives the book its divine authority, not the people of God. They merely recognize the divine authority which God gives it.” (Norman L. Geisler & William E. Nix, "General Introduction to the Bible" Chicago:Moody Press, 1968, p.210).
In other words once a book was written Christians read the book and examined its contents. They recognized that to be included in the canon a book must meet several standards:
1. It must clearly show it was inspired of God. This means it should be in complete agreement with they other books of the Bible. It must not contain doctrinal, historical, or scientific errors. It must have been written by the author who bares its name if one is given and in the time period it is represented as being written.
2. It must be recognized as inspired by the men of God. It must be recognized as God's word by men who serve the Lord as the Jews (in case of the Old Testament), pastors and church leaders.
3. It must have been collected and preserved by the people of God. God's people who studied and read the book because of its content recognized it as inspired of God and they collected copies and preserved them.
Therefore the books of the Bible that make up the canon are a part of the canon based on their content. In other words the Books of the Bible stand on their own authority as inspired by God and God's people have recognized this. No man or even group of men actually canonized the Bible....they only recognized the canon and accept it.
Answer:
There are about 6000 extant (existing) manuscripts (mss)of the New Testament and they all agree with each other word for word about 98.3 per cent of the time. The "variants" which means the places which they do not agree are well documented and mostly deal with spelling and punctuation differences. The other variants which are less that a half percent are clearly seen as being the result of copying the text and being made my the copyist. For example there is no Greek mss which has the statement "it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks" in Acts 9:5. The KJV translators put it there without mss evidence. It is found in Acts 22:14 in all the Greek mss so it is an accurate statement of God made at Paul's conversion, although not in the original mss at Acts 9:5. So is the KJV a perfect representation of the original "autograph" (original copy) of the book of Acts. No, but it is still God's word and His word is perfectly preserved and nothing is lost or added. The insertion of the phrase in Acts 9:5 is not an error or mistake and nothing is effected....we know what God said to Paul and what God chose to record.
Another example of a minor variant. In Rev. 22:19 the phrase "book of life" is not found in any Greek mss of the New Testament. If it was in the original autograph then it should be found is the copies of the originals which were passed down through the centuries, but it is not. What is found is the phrase "tree of life." We know because it is documented that Erasmus when he was finishing the TR (Textus Receptus) from which our KJV Bible is translated did not have a Greek mss of the Book of Revelation. So he translated the Book from the Latin Vulgate Translation. There is only one letter difference between "book" and "tree" in Latin and he mistakenly wrote "book" instead of "tree." However, we know this and it effects nothing....we know what the original autographs stated. Am I to be dishonest and ignore that all the Greek mss have the word tree rather than book?
I have studied the matter of translations extensively for the past six years plus and I know where most of the variants are in the KJV. Not one of them effects any doctrine in any way. But here is my dilemma. I know for a fact that these variants exists in the translated text. Am I to lie and say that the KJV perfectly represents the original autographs, when I know it does not?
By the way, I did not learn this from anyone else....I have studied the matter for many years now, taken a number of college courses on the transmission of the Bible...from sound Bible believing men and yes even some of the those who believe the modern translations are superior to the KJV. I have debated and challenged continually for their false assertions.
I have also personally compared the English translations with the Greek Majority text of which the TR is a part. I hold two earned degrees from a fundamental Baptist Bible college which includes two years of Greek. To be perfect every word and letter must be exactly like the original autographs and it is not. No translation is a perfect copy of one language into another. But the translation can, if diligence is applied, be an accurate representation of the meaning of the words in the original and that is exactly what the KJV is...an accurate translation of the Greek text.
I am absolute in my teaching that the KJV is best English translation we have and that it can be trusted completely as being the very word of God. I reject all modern translations, not because someone told me they were corrupted....leaving out, adding, and changing the text.....I have studied and proved it myself. I know they are corrupt and I give no concessions to the modern texts and condemn them for being a perversion of God's word. I am as honest in that as I am in the other. Until the KJV was translated the word of God was preserved in the Greek mss and that continues today. Should I ignore the Greek Majority text of which the TR is a part and ignore that before 1611 God's word was preserved in those Greek mss for over 1600 years and conclude that until the KJV was translated the Word of God was lost? It was not preserved in the Latin Vulgate which has many errors....or any other ancient translation...then was it lost all that time? It was preserved in the Greek texts and that is a proven demonstrable fact.
You see my situation is this....am I to be honest or to lie. We do not need to lie, to defend God's word and have complete confidence in the KJV. When we do, we play into the hands of the anti-KJV people who are inspired of the Devil and who are so ready to point out these things. We also lose the confidence of the people in the KJV when we lie. God says the TRUTH will set you free.
There are a lot of good men who love the Lord and His word, but they have not studied the matter for themselves and teach what someone has taught them or they read in someone's book. I did not get my facts from someone's books....I study the matter for myself and determined the truth from the evidence. I am show to make conclusions and only do when it is overwhelmingly clear what the truth is. I also am not intimidated by criticism to ignore truth. I serve the Lord in truth and conclude let all men be liars and God be truth. So the bottom line is I am being truthful and if I were not I would be sinning.
I have an article titled "The Mistranslation of the Greek Word "Ekklesia" in the English Bible and its Ramifications." This article further discusses the matter in regard to the KJV translators who transliterated biblical words instead of translating them. Click on the title and it will take you to the page.
Answer:
Think with me a little. The Bible tells us that God is love and that He is just. Would it be an act of love or justice to punish innocent people? Of course the answer is no....and when we read such an account as this we must consider that truth and that makes us understand that those that God punished must have deserved that punishment. Think....upon what criteria did God choose these 70 K and not others? There were 400 k people in Israel and most of Israel were not effected. Clearly knowing the character and nature of God that He cannot do wrong, precludes us making the conclusion by reading this that He was in error. Even though the account does not state this, clearly those that died were corrupt and were living in gross sin. God stopped their sinning by death and thereby lessened their judgment and protected the rest of Israel from destructive results of their sins in their society. God certainly would have preferred that they turn from their evil ways that was destroying themselves, their families and nation, but God will not violate a man's will. When David asked God to stop the pestilence, God showed mercy and granted his request. God made us free agents and will not force people to do right. God knew that those who were punished would not turn from their sins, so in an act of mercy He stopped their harmful behavior.
Answer:
Adam's sin is referred to as the "fall of man." Romans 5:12 explains: "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned. . ." Adam's sin made him a sinner and he lost the innocence in which he was created. He, on rejecting God instructions, became corrupt and that included his very nature. His disobedience brought his corruption on his children...and to all mankind. However, we are not judged by Adam's sin, but for our own. Revelation 20:12 "And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works." Because all men are born with the "carnal" nature...which is the nature to sin, they will sin. But God offers us complete and absolute forgiveness for our sins..... if we will receive it. That is why in Genesis 3:15 God promised one who would come and undo the work of Satan in the Garden of Eden. God promised a Savior and that Savior came....the Lord Jesus Christ.
He did not make it hard for us to overcome sin and death that the fall of man brought, but made is simple.....all we have to do was believe the truth...put our faith in Him and repenting of our sins receive forgiveness of sins and eternal life and go to heaven when we die. He did not require that we earn it or merit it by doing good works, He Himself came to earth, God incarnate in the man Jesus Christ and He paid for our sins debt....because we could not do it for ourselves. He suffered and died for us paying the penalty for sin that we could not pay.
God loved us. . . died for every person born on earth (1 John 2:2), and revealed Himself to every man (Romans 1:18-23) so they might be saved. John 3:15-19 reveals solution and the problem.... Verse 19 says, "This is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, but man loved darkness rather than light, because his deeds were evil."
So man can easily be forgiven of His sins if he will accept God's forgiveness. Problem is that most men do not want to believe in God, or they want a god they can manipulate and basically control themselves. However, our Creator, Almighty God, will not be subjected to man. If He did...what a tragedy that would be that sinful men would be put in such a position! Romans 1:18-32 reveals that God shows Himself to every man, but sadly most men refuse and reject God. They make unto themselves gods like men, animals, etc....instead of accepting our true God and Savior. This is man's problem....he loves sin and refused to accept God's rightness (righteousness). Think....would not the world be a wonderful place if men would not lie, cheat, steal, kill and hurt one another. Would not the world be better if man truly loved each other and as God does... and seek the best for others? What has rejecting God and refusing to believe in Him done for man? Well, the answer is.....the cut themselves off from God grace and the benefits of doing what is right. Man is rejecting God sets his course for destruction. Sin is doing what is wrong....and God seeks to warn us of this and extent to us eternal salvation....
I have an article on my web site at http://bible-truth.org/gospel.html titled "God's Simple Plan of Salvation" I explains God's plan in some detail. Maybe that would help you to understand more about who God is an what is His plan to save men from their sins.
Answer:
The restrictions you mention are part of the Old Testament Law given to the nation of Israel. It is not applicable to us as we are not of the nation of Israel, nor under their laws. The OT law was for Israel was their Constitution and system of both civil and spiritual laws which covered almost everything in their lives. Christians today are in a different dispensation and we are part of the age of the local church. Paul said in Romans 6:14 "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace."
However, behind God's laws were sound moral and practical principles of conduct. The reason for this law, about using wool and linen together was for a twofold reason. One it was to keep Israel separate from the pagan nations around her so they would not be involved in their sins and idolatry. Homosexuality and gross immorality was practiced by the pagan nations that surrounded Israel and the clothes the pagans wore identified them with their sin. This restriction about the wearing of clothes was to given to keep them from appearing like their pagan immoral neighbors.
Further there was a practical application also...The essence of the crime (Zeph. 1:8) consisted, not in wearing a woollen and a linen robe, but in the two stuffs being woven together, according to a favorite superstition of ancient idolaters. The law, did not prohibit the Israelites wearing many different kinds of cloths together, but only the two specified; and the observations and researches of modern science have proved that "wool, when combined with linen, increases its power of passing off the electricity from the body. In hot climates, it can bring on malignant fevers and exhausts the strength; and when passing off from the body, it meets with the heated air, inflames and excoriates like a blister" (Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Commentary of the Bible)
The restriction about planting different seeds together had to do with cross pollination. For example if two different varieties of grapes were planted together they would cross pollination and produce an undesirable fruit. If kept separate they would produce a pure fruit of the variety planted which was more desirable.
This restriction applied to "vineyards" or the raising of grapes. Today farmers do the same thing in producing pure varieties of crops such as corn and arrange crops to minimize the change of cross pollination.
The OT laws were very practical and scientific. Israel did not know about the science of genetics...but God did and if they followed God's instructions the did not need to know the science behind the law. Following the law produced an ordered society and they prospered.
Answer:
It is technically not true that the KJV was not copyrighted. It was and is copyrighted and the first editions had the words ""Cum Privilegio Regiae Maieftatis". These Latin words literally mean "with privilege from his royal Majesty " In that era when a printer was authorized to print the Bible, he normally paid for and held the copyright and received all profit from the sales.

This scan is from the bottom of the opening page
of the New Testament in the 1611 King James Version.
This scan is from the Oxford University Press (1911) reprint of the 1611 KJV.
The first page of the 1611 KJV New Testament bears the copyright. The Old Testament was so marked in subsequent years. Robert Baker paid for the printing of the KJV and his family held the copyright into the eighteenth century. The KJV is still copyrighted in England with only four authorized printers which includes Cambridge and Oxford Universities. Since 1776 the copyright in the United States has been largely ignored, however it is still valid. Some KJV Bibles still are copyrighted and all that are published in the United Kingdom are printed under its copyright. What happened was that when America won its independence from England, American printers ignored the English copyrights. The USA after the Revolutionary War did not have copyright agreements with England and American publishers took advantage of that.
In the USA you will see statements that say the KJV is in public domain and can be copied freely, however technically that is not true as the English copyright has never been repealed. America today has mutual copyright protection laws with most all countries, but in the USA the copyright of the KJV is still ignored and apparently the English are gracious and not willing to press the matter.
The current (1992) copyright statement of the KJV reads: "All rights in respect of the Authorize (King James) Version of the Holy Bible are vested in the Crown in the United Kingdom and controlled by the Royal Letters Patent. No part of this publication may be transmitted, in any form or any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, or stored in any retrieval system of any nature, without written permission.
It is true that some of the typo's different readings found in American printings can probably be attributed to the lack of copyright protection.
The honest student of the Bible will admit that there are variants even with editions of the KJV. So, how do we know we have an accurate translation today? We do not have to rely on copyright protections to make sure we have an accurate translation. We have the Greek manuscripts from which the KJV was translated and we can compare our modern Bibles with the Greek texts.
Further no matter what KJV you have, no variant has any bearing on doctrine. The variant readings within the various editions of the KJV are minor variations dealing with spelling and grammatical differences. For example: The Cambridge edition in 2 Chronicles 33:19 has the word "sin"; whereas the Oxford edition incorrectly has "sin(s)". We know what is correct because the Hebrew has the singular and whether singular or plural the meaning is not compromised.
Another well known variant is found in Jeremiah 34:16 and the words "ye had." The 1611 correctly translated the phrase "ye had." (Cambridge, Kirban, New Scofield, some Oxford's, etc) Others editions have incorrectly "he had". (American Bible Society, Moody, Kirkbride, Royal, Tyndale and others) We know it is correctly translated "ye had" but again the meaning is not lost in "he had."
All variants are known and documented. Read my article at http://bible-truth.org/LDS8tharticle.html "Has the Bible Been Correctly Translated? " for more information.
All modern translations are based on the corrupted Eastern or Minority text of Westcott-Hort and are not accurate translations. For a rather blatant demonstration of the corrupted NIV go to http://bible-truth.org/NIVtest.html and take the NIV Test.
For a brief explanation you might like to read part of my article on How We Got The Bible that deals with the attacks on the Bible http://bible-truth.org/Howwegot.htm#010a
I can assure you that whatever KJV you are using, the text is basically the same.
Answer: Philosophy by definition is simply what someone thinks about something. One's philosophy is correct or in error based on the facts and the truth of the matter. Suppose one's philosophy would be that taking drugs, drinking, living a sinful life was good for them. Clearly that is a false philosophy and would lead to trouble and suffering. Just because a person thinks it to be correct ....(or in error) does not establish what is true. So one's philosophy could be very wrong and that is what Colossians 2:8 is referring to. The world's philosophy is to reject God and truth and to believe untruths (lies). So what Paul is saying is do not pattern your life after the false ideas of the world, but on God's truth as revealed in the Bible.
Answer: First God has not done away with the fourth commandment. However, that is not the question....the question is who does it apply too. Let me try to answer your question by explaining to you what the OT Law was and who is it for.
The OT law as given to Israel by God and...it was "their" written law in the same way that we have laws in our country expressed in our constitution, Federal, State and local laws. These laws dealt with setting up statutes that dealt with keeping civil order and setting principles that the government is to enforce.
In the case of Israel, these ten laws were the foundational rules of conduct God given government somewhat like our constitution, but there were only ten of many other laws God gave them in the Books of Leviticus and Deuteronomy....all called the Law of Moses. Israel was a special people, a nation, chosen by God and were to be ruled as a theocracy which was expressed in the laws that God gave them. These laws made the unique in the world and was given to preserve them as God's people.
As a Christian I keep the principles on which these specific laws were based and expressed in every day life, like not killing, stealing, etc. These law were actions of righteousness within the context of the Nation of Israel. However, as a Christian I am not an Israelite and not a citizen of Israel and the many laws of Leviticus are not given to me. This does not mean that I ignored God's righteous principles and sin. God has given Christians in the dispensation instructions also as expressed in the Epistles of the New Testament. We are to live by them.
We need to understand that these numerous laws given to Israel were based on righteous principles given by God to all men. They were to be enforced by their government which as I said was a theocracy. It was the responsibility of the priests to administer the law, to judge and to carry out penalties.
God's program for today is that we live by the principles found in God's word. It is an individual and personal thing with us. We are to assembly voluntarily in congregations to worship the Lord.(Heb. 10:21-15) But our churches and pastors do not have the authority to execute people who commit murder, thievery, etc. To be a valid law, it must be administered by someone who has the authority to carry out penalties when the law is broken. It is our government has that God given responsibility and authority, not our churches (Rom. 13:1-5).
Behind every law God gave Israel was a principle of righteousness. Deuteronomy 6:25 “And it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the LORD our God, as he hath commanded us.” Psalms 4:5 “Offer the sacrifices of righteousness, and put your trust in the LORD.” Isaiah 42:21 “The LORD is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable.”
Let look at the practical side of this matter: For example: God told Israel in Leviticus 20:27 “A man also or woman that hath a familiar spirit, or that is a wizard, shall surely be put to death: they shall stone them with stones: their blood shall be upon them.” Do we have the authority to stone people who deal in the occult? Of course not... If you read the Books of Leviticus and Deuteronomy you quickly see that the OT laws were given to govern Israel and we as Christian are not under the OT law.
God first gave the Sabbath as a duty to man in the book of Exodus to the new nation of Israel. It is true that the Sabbath originated at the completion of the creation (Gen. 2:1-3), but that was God's rest, not man's. There is no record in Genesis that God gave the Sabbath to man, and there is no record of men keeping the Sabbath before Israel in the wilderness. Neh. 9:13,14 plainly states that the Sabbath was first given to Israel. Group like the Seventh-day Adventists and others teach that men kept the Sabbath from the days of Adam onward, but this is contrary to the Bible's own record. There is no record of people keeping the Sabbath before God gave it to Israel.
Ex. 31:12-18 plainly states the Sabbath was a special sign between God and Israel. If mankind in general had been given the Sabbath following creation, it could not have been a special sign for Israel. The fact is that the Sabbath belongs to the nation Israel and not to any other people. It is also important to note that the Sabbath will be an eternal possession of Israel as Exodus. 31:16 clearly states. This sign will never be annulled or transferred to another people. This explains why the prophets foretell that Israel will keep the Sabbath even after the kingdom of Christ is established on earth in the Millennium (Isa. 66:23). It also explains why Jesus Christ mentioned the Sabbath in His prophecies of the Tribulation (Matt. 24:20). Israelites in the land of Palestine still keep the Sabbath today. I spend tens days in Israel in October 2002 and can testify of that.
In their writings to the churches, the Apostles only mentioned the Sabbath three times.
Why, then, did Jesus keep the Sabbath? He kept the Sabbath for the same reason He kept all the other Mosaic laws. He also observed the feasts. Jesus did these things because He was born a Jew, born under the law, that He might fulfill it and redeem His people from its penalty and bondage (Gal. 4:4; Rom. 9:5).
Christians worship God and rest on Sunday. Not as a commandment, but in respect and love for our Lord and Savior. We do not live godly lives because we are under the law....we do so because we love God and know that to live righteous lives honors the Lord and is a testimony of His righteousness.
As Christians we do obey God's laws and principles because they are right and to do otherwise is sin. Galatians 5:18 “But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.” You see we as Christians in the age live by a higher principle....we obey God because we love Him...not because the law makes us. Galatians 3:24 gives us the purpose of the law to Israel.....”Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.” The just live by faith....not because we are under the weight of the law. Do you see the difference?
Respectfully, may I suggest that you not let some church or church leader put you under Israel's laws that were not intended for you. These people and groups do not keep the OT laws themselves....God say to break one law is to break the all. James 2:10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.” Do we stone witches, and children who are disobedient to their parents? Do we stone to death, adulterers, and those that commit fornication? Do we not allow our children to marry another race of people? Are we not allowed to wear clothes made from two different materials.....well if you are under the law...that is what the OT law requires.
God says....Romans 10:4 “For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.”
Ephesians 2:15 “Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace.”
The Sabbath is for Israel, not for us, yet we worship the Lord as well, on Sunday the day Jesus arose from the grave and won the victory over sin and death.
Keeping a particular day...or law does not make one spiritual....what makes one spiritual in living by the principles of God from the heart....not because some person or church says we must do this or that.
I hope you will carefully consider these things.
You cannot honestly equate that the three servants were saved men and the two good servants were saved and the last one lost. That clearly contradicts the fact that a believer has eternal life and is assured of heaven. A believer cannot be lost. (1 Peter 1:3-5)
It is important to understand that the parable is an illustration to teach that servants are to be faithful and those who are not are condemned. This illustration was given to Jews, because that is who Matthew 24-25 is addressed to. The nation of Israel was rejecting Jesus as their Messiah. Some, though only a few, were saved Jews, the rest were unsaved and would not believe and accept Jesus as Messiah. Jesus the Messiah came as prophecies in the Old Testament fulfilling all the prophecies and doing marvelous miracles which showed that He was truly the Messiah. The handful of His disciple believed and followed Him, but most of Israel did not. Thus this parable is a warning to the Jews.... The talents they received was the knowledge of the Messiah. Only those who believed and would spread the Gospel were saved and rewarded.
That is who Jesus is warning. He was saying to them....one day the Master will return and those who served the Master would be rewarded and those that rejected Him and would not serve Him would be condemned. So it is not saying that any believer would be condemned, but would be rewarded according to their faithfulness to the Lord.
A believer can lose reward when judged by the Lord at the BEMA judgment, by not being faithful, but will be saved as 1 Corinthians 3:10-15 plainly states.
Of course the unsaved will also be judged by their works at the Great White Throne judgment of Revelation 20:11-15. They were too given the light of God, but rejected it as Romans 1:18-23 states and are therefore without excuse.
Answer: May I respectfully suggest you read the following passages:
For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin. (Romans 7:14)
And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ. (1 Corinthians 3:1)
For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men? (1 Corinthians 3:3)
For while one saith, I am of Paul; and another, I am of Apollos; are ye not carnal? (1 Corinthians 3:4)
Paul refers to himself as being carnal, he certainly was a Christian, The Corinthians were also Christians and Paul called them carnal. So I think it is clear that a Christian can be carnal in their actions when they yield to their old or carnal natures.
The word carnal is found in the New Testament eleven times and at least four of these times it is referring to the sinful (carnal) actions of a Christian or believer.
Answer:
The Old Testament began to be put into sections before the Babylonian Captivity (586 B.C.) with the five books of Moses being put into a 154 section reading program to be used in a three-year cycle. Later (before 536 B.C.) the Law was put into 54 sections and 669 sub-divisions for reading.
In the New Testament, the verse divisions were first added by Robert Estienne in his 1551 edition of the Greek New Testament. In 1557, the first English New Testament with verse divisions were used in a translation by William Whittingham (c. 1524-1579). These divisions have been used by nearly all English Bibles since then.
. Look not thou upon the wine earnestly, so as to inflame thine appetite towards it; in which sense men are forbidden to look upon a woman, Job 31:1; Matt 5:28. When it is red; which was the color of the best wines in that country, which therefore are called blood, Gen 49:11; Deut 32:14; and such were used by them in the Passover.
When it moveth itself aright; when it sparkleth and frisketh, and seems to smile upon a man.
Look not thou upon the wine - Let neither the color, the odour, the sparkling, etc., of the wine, when poured out, induce you to drink of it. However good and pure it may appear, it "At the last it biteth like a serpent, and stingeth like an adder." (Proverbs 23:32).
The verse presents the universal principle that the person who receives a lot will normally receive more. The application here is that if you use the knowledge you have and apply it, it will natural cause you to learn more.
The disciples had the privilege of being taught by Christ and if they used and applied that knowledge they were given, more would be also given. You learn your ABCs you can learn to read.
To the one who had not, refers to the Jews who could have had the knowledge of who Jesus was and who could have received the Kingdom of Heaven. But they rejected Him as their Messiah. They saw His mirages, heard His message, and they knew the Old Testament prophecies of His coming, but they did not believe it or allow it to grow into salvation. They did not apply what they knew and lost salvation the Messiah brought and also being a part of the Kingdom of heaven.
They therefore would lose everything, because they would not apply the knowledge that had, they would lose what the knowledge brought which was salvation. They a great advantage of being born Jews and knowing the Old Testament prophecies, plus the advantage of being God's chosen people. The rejected what they knew and lost everything.
The English phrase "and he died" is translated from one Hebrew word "muwth" or "nu meth" mentioned above. It actually does not say where he died, but that he did. It is two statements. They took him to Jerusalem. He died. It does not say he died in Jerusalem. He left the battle field mortally wounded and probably on the way to Jerusalem died.
I think I mentioned this before, but God is the Author of the Bible. He does not make mistakes. When one sees what at first appears to be a discrepancy it simply means we must investigate further. In ten years of answering emails, no one has ever sent me a supposed discrepancies that actually was. There is always a logical explanation. The problem is in our understanding, not in God's word. We have to interpret God's word in its grammatical, historical, and cultural context. When we do...alleged problems disappear because our understanding is enlightened.
Note what Paul told Timothy, "Of these things put them in remembrance, charging them before the Lord that they strive not about words to no profit, but to the subverting of the hearers. Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. But shun profane and vain babbling's: for they will increase unto more ungodliness. And their word will eat as doth a canker: of whom is Hymenaeus and Philetus; (2 Timothy 2:14-17)
There are many web sites that attack the Bible and try to show these alleged errors. These are people who have no good purpose in mind, but seek to destroy the faith of believers, and to keep others from believing. These evil people know better. There are many Bible scholars who have addressed and explained the "supposed problems" so there is no reason for someone who is honest to be ignorant of the matter. These people know they are liars misusing God's word. Yet, they persist. Think..... why would someone go to such lengths to discredit the Bible? What is their purpose? Surely, they work so hard for a reason.
Satan has not changed his tactics since he tempted Eve. Genesis 3"1. . .Yea, hath God said, Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden." Satan tempted Eve by questioning God's word. In 3:4 he simply lied and said that she would not die. Satan's serpents are still at work, using the same old methods to call God a liar. Who is the real liar"?
Jesus said, "Beware of false prophets, which come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly they are ravening wolves. Ye shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit. A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit. Every tree that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire. Wherefore by their fruits ye shall know them." (Matthew 7:15-20)
God says, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (2 Timothy 3:16-17)
"For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost." (2 Peter 1:21)
God has not lied to us nor contradicted Himself. The Word of God is ...just that and is true.
Clearly these ungodly people were hard hearted sinful men. Jesus was doing good they were attacking Him. He healed on the Sabbath and they became angry because they said He broken the Sabbath law. You see these people were religious, but lost. They though their birth as Jews would save them along with their keeping the Law. However, Jesus preached salvation by faith (John 3). In Luke 6:17 f Jesus preached righteousness. He rebuked the rich who trusted wealth instead of God. He rebuked the Jews and their ancestors for killing he prophets who told them God's message. If you read the next several chapters you will see that Jesus was condemning these unbelieving and lost self righteous religious leaders and they hated him for it.
This is the context of Jesus' statement in Luke 11:17f. He explained that it was foolish to say He cast out demons by the power of the Devil. Why would demons be involved in casting our demons from some person? He the challenged them by asking by what power did they cast out demons? He said if He with the "finger of God" cast out devils and you reject the Kingdom of God is come upon you. This was the real issue. Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament prophecies concerning the promised Messiah, but they would not accept Him.
John the Baptist had preached for the Jews to repent for the promised Kingdom was nigh. He baptized Jesus and declared that He was the promised Messiah. Jesus did many miracles yet the people still rejected Him. They wanted a Savior who would deliver them from the Romans who were oppressing and ruling over them. However, Jesus preached forgiveness and turning the other cheek. He said to love their enemies and to do good to them that despised them. They had hard hearts and rejected Jesus because they did not like His preaching of righteousness.
He was offering to them salvation and forgiveness of sins, but they were only interested in a military leader who would save them from the Romans. They rejected Jesus spiritual teachings because they were unsaved.
Jesus explained in verses 21-26 that if a demon was cast out of a man and that man does not turn to God and put his faith in God, the demon can return and bring other demons with him, because the man is spiritually empty and demon can control him. Read verses 27-29. He told them in verse 29 that they were an evil generation because they would not believe him.
He told them they would not receive any sign....accept that of Jonah who was brought back to life after being in the great fish for three days and three nights. The rest of the chapter records the rejection of the Jews of Jesus as their Messiah.
Answer: Sir, I believe what the Bible literally says. Jesus was taking the Jewish Passover and He took the bread and grape juice and gave it to them. He then explained to His disciples that all the many years of the Jews taking the Passover had symbolized His coming sacrifice and atonement for sin. Nowhere in God's word does it say that the bread and wine literally become Jesus' body. The sacrifice for sins occurred the following day when He was crucified. It did not occur at the Lord's table. It has always been a symbolic act even in the Passover, of Jesus' suffering and death on the Cross. It is dishonest to teach what the Roman church does and mislead so many people.
In 1 Corinthians 11:23-26 Jesus said to take the Lord's Supper in remembrance of Him. That means to remember His suffering. He did not say to take it to remove or atone for sin or that it was a sacrament. He further said to take the bread and cup in verse 26 to "show the Lord's death till he comes." Thus we look forward to His Second Coming. Nowhere does the Bible support the Roman Catholic teaching. The RCC distorts this wonderful ordinance the Lord gave us and falsely uses it to make people dependent on their church for salvation. Your church teach only it can administer what you call the Eucharist and there is not salvation outside the Roman church. Sir, the teaching of the RCC is false and the Lord's Supper is not a sacrament.
Hope this helps you understand an important truth....
(2.) Heb rephaim, a race of giants (De 3:11) who lived on the east of Jordan, from whom Og was descended. They were probably the original inhabitants of the land before the immigration of the Canaanites. They were conquered by Chedorlaomer (Ge 14:5), and their territories were promised as a possession to Abraham (Ge 15:20). The Anakim, Zuzim, and Emim were branches of this stock.
In Job 26:5 (R.V., "they that are deceased;" marg., "the shades," the "Rephaim") and Isa 14:9 this Hebrew word is rendered (A.V.) "dead." It means here "the shades," the departed spirits in Sheol. In 2 Samuel 21:16,18,20,22, "the giant" is (A.V.) the rendering of the singular form "ha raphah," which may possibly be the name of the father of the four giants referred to here, or of the founder of the Rephaim. The Vulgate here reads "Arapha," whence Milton (in Samson Agonistes) has borrowed the name "Harapha." (See also 1 Chronicles 20:5-6,8; Deut. 2:11,20; 3:13; Joshua 15:8, etc., where the word is similarly rendered "giant.") It is rendered "dead" in (A.V.) Psa. 88:10; Prov. 2:18; 9:18; 21:16; in all these places the Revised Version marg. has "the shades." (See also Isa 26:14.)
(3.) Heb 'Anakim (De 2:10-11,21; Joshua 11:21-22; 14:12,15; called "sons of Anak," Numbers 13:33; "children of Anak," Nu 13:22; Joshua 15:14), a nomad race of giants descended from Arba (Joshua 14:15), the father of Anak, that dwelt in the south of Palestine near Hebron (Ge 23:2; Jos 15:13). They were a Cushite tribe of the same race as the Philistines and the Egyptian shepherd kings. David on several occasions encountered them (2 Samuel 21:15-22). From this race sprung Goliath (1 Samuel 17:4).
(4.) Heb 'emin, a warlike tribe of the ancient Canaanites. They were "great, and many, and tall, as the Anakims" (Ge 14:5; De 2:10-11).
(5.) Heb Zamzummim (q.v.), De 2:20 so called by the Amorites.
(6.) Heb gibbor (Job 16:14), a mighty one, i.e., a champion or hero. In its plural form (gibborim) it is rendered "mighty men" (2 Samuel 23:8-39; 1 Kings 1:8; 1 Chronciles 11:9-47; 29:24.) The band of six hundred whom David gathered around him when he was a fugitive were so designated. They were divided into three divisions of two hundred each, and thirty divisions of twenty each. The captains of the thirty divisions were called "the thirty," the captains of the two hundred "the three," and the captain over the whole was called "chief among the captains" (2 Samuel 23:8). The sons born of the marriages mentioned in Ge 6:4 are also called by this Hebrew name.