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    Answer:   
    I think he was under a great deal of pressure from the Jewish leaders to prove he was truly a Jew. They had heard he was teaching the Gentiles and all believers that they were not bound by the law. You must understand that Paul was a devout Jew and although he was not obligated to keep the law he did observe it. That is what he did in Acts 21. There was nothing wrong in his actions. His ministry was in the beginning to the Jews first and then the Gentiles. Later he went to the Gentiles as God directed him and in his epistles explained that Gentiles believers nor any believer was under the law. Jewish believers still kept the law and there was not prohibition for them not to. (Acts 21:20). It was as much their ethnic heritage as their religion. In Acts 15 when Paul and those from Antioch (a mixed Jew-Gentile church ) went to Jerusalem seeking a solution to the problem of Gentiles eating things sacrificed to idols and blood, (see Acts 21:25) the resolution was to partly restrict the Gentiles without putting them under the law. Later when the churches became almost all Gentile in Col 2:16 Paul stated that they should let know man judge them "meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days." Peter was shunning the Gentiles being afraid of what the Jews who arrived on the scene would think of him. That is why Paul called Peter down. He was in a Gentile assembly and setting a bad example of causing a division between the Jew and Gentile over the matter of the law. Peter seems to have been teaching that Gentiles did not have to keep the law (verse 21), but when the Jew arrive he reverted back to the law. It shows that the Jews were still keeping the law even to the point of some of them shunning Gentile believers. I hope this helps you understand what happened. In the long haul God used the incident at the Temple to imprision Paul and three years later send him to Rome. Clearly the events were God's will and Paul was used to preach Jesus Christ to the Roman officials, Herod the King, and the Jews leaders and eventually in Rome.

    Answer:    Certainly no man could do greater miracles that the Lord Jesus. Jesus preached and told men to repent of their sin and by faith receive Him as their Messiah. He raised the dead, healed all diseases, including blindness and deformities from birth. The disciples could not preach better than Christ, nor did they do greater miracles than Jesus did so we must look further and examine the context of the statement to understand Christ's meaning.

    In John 14:1f Jesus was telling the disciples that He was going to leave them and return to heaven. They were concerned about their going to heaven if Christ was leaving them and what would happen to them. This is the context of Jesus' statement and the key to understanding this is in verse 12 which says, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father."

    Jesus says they will do the same works he did also and adds "greater works than these." If they did the same works as He did...this could not mean the magnitude of the work would be different, but that the effects or results of their ministry would be greater. One cannot preach a greater Gospel, or do greater miracles that Jesus did.

    Therefore Jesus was saying they in quantity would have more extensive results from their ministry after He left. That means more conversions of sinners and that is exactly what happened. Those that believed in Jesus amounted to only 120 people who remained faithful to Him as shown on the Day of Pentecost. That day Peter preached truth that Jesus was the Messiah and 3000 Jews were saved. Jesus preached three years and had only 120 converts, yet Peter's message, used by God, had almost a 30% greater result.

    Jesus' ministry was limited to Judea and witnessed by only a few and even though it was well known in that area Jesus' message was mostly rejected. The Jews did not believe Him and had Him crucified. But the works of the apostles were witnessed by many nations, and the effect of their miracles and preaching was that hundreds of thousands from among the Jews and Gentiles have been saved even until today. Therefore the word "greater" here is used not to denote the exertion of power, but of the effect which their ministry would have on mankind. In other words they would have a wider ministry and see more souls saved.


    Answer:    The phrase "and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed" simply means that those that believed in Jesus Christ were appointed unto eternal life. God's "appointed" plan (ordained) is those who believe are given eternal life. The Greek word is "tasso" (tas’-so) and means to appoint or place in order. Romans 13:1 gives an example of the use of the word "Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God." The phrase says the powers are appointed or placed in order by God. It passage does not mean that God chose some to be saved and others to be condemned to hell based upon what the Calinists say was God's soveriegn choice. I have an article on the matter at http://bible-truth.org/election.htm you might like to read. If you have further questions please write. Thanks


    Answer:    The use of the word is not talking about money, but is referring the to end of the Babylonian Empire and that Beltshazzer the king time was numbered.     The word "Phar'sin" refers to making a division.   The Babylonian Empire would be divided between the Medes and the Persians.
         The following is from my commentary on Daniel 5:25-28:
      The writing on the wall was Aramaic and stated, “Me’ne, Mene, Te’kel, Upharsin.”   The words  were “Numbered, Numbered, Weighted and Divided.”    Daniel interpreted the words giving the meaning:

      ME’NE  - God has numbered thy kingdom and it is finished.   Note that his phrase was written twice.
    TE’KEL  - Thou are weighted in the balances (judged) and are found wanting.
    PE’RES  - Thy kingdom is divided and given to the Medes and the Persians.  The word Pe’res is the singular form of the word Phar’sin.    The “U” before this word means “and.”

     


    Answer:    Please read Judith 9:9-14 and especially verses 10 and 13. This prayer is asking God to bless "guile," which means "deceitfully cunning" or lies.    Clearly, God rightous and holy and He cannot bless lies and deceit for any purpose.   If you read chapter 10 and following according to the account you will see that it states God did bless, Judith's lies.   The whole book is simply fiction and is not part of God's word.

     


    Answer:    Romans 10:13 "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (See Acts 2:21)

             "Whosoever" means that anyone can ask for salvation. Verses 11-13 explains that God places no restrictions on salvation as to who can be saved except a person must believe and "call on the Lord." This section of Romans was addressed to the Jews and most Jews, knowing that they were God's chosen people, did not understand that salvation was for all men, Jew and Gentile alike. They were relying on their birth as Jews and their good works to save them. They misunderstood that salvation was personal with each individual and that God's choosing was of the nation and people for His purpose of bringing the Messiah to the world. This was the subject of Jesus' discourse with Nicodemus. Nicodemus thought that as a Jew he was in good favor with God, but Jesus pointed out that a man must be "born again". Nicodemus was "born of water" referring to human birth as a Jew, but that it was not sufficient for salvation. In John 3:15-19 Jesus explained how one is saved, which is by believeth. Verse 18 states that those that believe not in Him are condemn already. This applies to all the world. Romans 10:2, states that the Jews had a zeal for God, but without knowledge. Paul in Romans 10 is explaining that salvation is to all men and by faith alone. John 3:19 says that Jesus the Messiah, who is the light, came into the world, but the Jews and most of mankind refuse to accept Him and are condemned.

             The meaning of the Romans 10:13 is two fold. One..."whosoever" (anyone Jew or Gentile) who in faith calls upon the Lord will be saved. Second, it that salvation only possible through Jesus the Christ. Acts 4:12 "Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved." Jesus is the only Savior and one must come to Him for salvation.

             The word "call upon" in the original language means to "invoke worship, to appeal to, and to call." In other words a person who "calls upon or appeals" to the Lord to save them from their sins shall be saved. From the Greek definition we see it means more than just saying the words and this is confirmed by other passages also including Romans 10:10.

             Earlier in the passage Romans 10:9-10 states: "That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation."

             The passages says that if a person "confesses" which means to acknowledge that Jesus is the Lord and...believes in one's heart that God has raised Him from the dead, God would save that person. Simply this means that Jesus is God our Savior. Verse 10 explains that if this confession or appeal comes from a person's heart...they will be saved. Just saying the words does not save....what saves is a heart felt acknowledgement that a person is appealing to God to save them from their sins....and recognizing that they cannot save themselves and thus they are relying wholly on the Lord Jesus Christ for their salvation. This is where repentance comes in. In receiving salvation a person sees himself a sinner unable to save himself and hearing the truth that Jesus is the Savior and offers salvation to all who will believer and receive it....that person, in faith, acknowledges this truth and asks God for forgiveness and to be saved. (2 Peter 3:9 "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.")

             So, "upon the name of the Lord" refers to a person putting his faith in Jesus Christ for salvation and nothing or no one else.

             Ephesians 2:8-9 "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast."

             This passage explains that salvation is not something that a person can merit or earn by any good works, ritual church membership, baptism, nor anything else. Salvation is the "gift" of God through His grace. So the person who is "saved" and whose sins are forgiven and receives eternal life. . . is the one who wholly puts their faith in Jesus Christ for their salvation. We throw ourselves on God's mercy and grace and He promises to save us.

             1 John 2:2 states: "And he (Jesus Christ) is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world." The word "propitiation" means full payment. When Jesus suffered and died for our sins and was resurrected. . . He paid fully our sin debt. He then offers salvation to us freely as a gift if we will receive or accept it. That is why Romans 10:13 says the one who is saved is the one who calls on the Lord. We acknowledge our sin and that He is our God and Savior and in simple faith ask God to save us. And He does. . . that is His promise!

             For a biblical explanation of God's plan of salvation go to http://bible-truth.org/gospel.html .


    Answer:            The fullness of the Gentiles refers to the period which began when the Jesus Christ was rejected by Israel and the Gospel went to the Gentiles. The Gospel first went to the Jews, presenting Jesus as the Christ (Messiah) but they rejected Him. Paul began his missionary journeys going first to the Jews and then to the Greeks (Gentiles). (See Romans 1:16, 2:9-10) The Jews rejected Paul's message and he said in Acts 18:6 "And when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean: from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles." (Acts 18:6)

            So the Gospel went to the Gentiles when the Jews rejected it. That began the period of time in which the Gospel was given to the Gentiles....thus the phrase "fullness of the Gentiles" refers to the end of the period when the Gospel is going to them. Prophetcially the next prophetc event will be Christ coming for His bride, or body which means all Christian from Pentecost until the beginning of the Tribulation. (1 Thess. 4:13-18, 1 Cor. 15:51-58)

            During the seven year period of the Tribulation God will once again began to work with the Jews, opening their eyes, and many Jews will be saved. Revelation 7 says that 144,000 will be saved at the beginning of these seven years also called Daniel's 70th Week (Dan. 9:27).

            At the end of the seven years, Jesus returns and purges the earth of all sinners. There will be a reminant of believers of Jews and Gentiles on the earth living at the Second Coming. These believers will go into the Millennial Kingdom which Christ establishs after the Tribulation. During this 1000 years God will establish His promised Kingdom to the Jews.

            So 50 days after the Second Coming "all Israel" meaning those alive at the second coming will be saved. Further, all saved Jews from the Old Testament times will be there too in their resurrected bodies. "All Israel" refers to believing saved Jews. Note this is what Paul said in Romans 9 "Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel" (Romans 9:6) That is also why Jesus told Nicodemus in John 3 that he had to be born again meaning his Jewish birth (water) would not save him and he had to be "born again" meaning born of God spiritually.



    Answer:    Many have written and ask the same question.   The confusion is easily cleared up once we understand what is being discussed.   First we must understand that all believers sin.   Note what 1 John 1:8-10, which is addressed to believers, says:

              "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us"  (1 John 1:8-10).

              So...no believer is perfect and all believers will sin.    God understands that and has made provision for us.  When a person is saved ALL our sins are forgiven past, present and future.   We are imputed (attribute something to someone)  God's righteousness... because we have none of our own.   See Romans 4:21-25.

            Romans 6:18 says we are made free from sin.   Clearly this refers to the penalty of sin.  A believer is not under the penalty for sin.  Romans 8:1-2 says  "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death."

              So believers will sin, but all our sins are forgiven and we are righteous in God's sight.

              A must understand this in order to understand Hebrews 6:26-29.   Hebrews is addressed to Jews.."Hebrews" and we know that it was written sometime at the end of the first century.    Many Jews were looking for Jesus the Messiah to return and set up His kingdom...but He had not come. They began to doubt their salvation and Jesus as being the Messiah.   This is the context of the whole book and this passage and we must take it into consideration.

              Hebrews 6:4-8 says almost the same thing.    This is a warning was that if  they were not diligence in living by faith and serving the Lord a falling off will take place, and apostasy could ensue in their lives. Note verse 21-25 addressing living for the Lord and attending services. It is a warning against lukewarmness in a person's heart.

                     The phrase "if we sin"  is a Greek present participle meaning "if we be found sinning",  and refers to not isolated acts of sin, but a state of continual willful sin in a believer's life.   Hebrews 10:28-29, continues and refers to these Jews who disregarded the Law of Moses and they lost their lives.   Now we must understand that the passage is addressing believers, whose sins are forgiven and have eternal life.  So it is not talking about a saved person losing their salvation, but rather of God chastening a believer who is blatantly sinning and will not repent (turn from) his sins. God is saying that He will chasten that believer even unto death to stop him from unrepentant sin.  

              John refers to this state in which a saved person refuses to repent and sins unto death.   "If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it. All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death." (1 John 5:16-17)

      Paul addressed the same thing in 1 Corinthians 11.   He said in giving instructions on taking the Lord Supper...

      "Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body. " (1 Corinthians 11:27-29)

                 Note Paul says from a man to examine himself....    That means to examine our lives to see if there is unconfessed sin there.     The Lord Supper is a memorial to remember Christ's suffering.   It is a time to remember that any sin we commit today, Jesus had to suffer for on the cross 2000 years ago.    So the Christian should be careful not to disgard (discern the Lord's body) and continue to sin causing the Lord suffering.

              Paul said that some at Corinthian were openly and willingly sinning and that God was chastening some of them by making them sick...and "many" God had taken their lives. (See 1 Corinthians 11:30)

              Hebrews 12:6-11 explains this chastening of God.   God does not chasten the unsaved as they are not His children...but belong to the Devil.    If a person is without chastening and are willingly and blatantly living in sin...and they have no chastening...then that is proof that they are not saved...because God chastens ALL His children who sin continually and are unrepentant.    It does not say that every time we commit a sin...God chastens us.   It means if we continually willfully sin fully realizing we are doing wrong and we rebel against God and the Holy Spirit who convict us and refuse to repent.

              1 John 1:9 says to confess our sins and God will "cleanse" us...meaning help us to not continue to commit that sin.   He says He will cleanse us from all unrighteousness.     The word "righteousness" simply means "right-ness" or doing what is right.

    I have an article at http://bible-truth.org/assuran2.html that explains what the Bible says about Eternal Security of the believers that I believe will help you understand further.


    Answer:    The context of verse 19 is that a Peter is referring to the suffering of believers and begins in verse 16. He explains, if it is God’s will that believers suffer, their suffering should be for doing right, in other words stem from the exercise of their faith and not because of something they did wrong. Peter continues saying:

           “For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.” (1 Peter 3:18-20)

               He then points us to Christ’s sufferings, the “Just” for the “Unjust.” In other words Christ was just, and His suffer was from no fault of His own. The implication is we to, if we suffer, it should be a being “just” and not having any fault. This sets the context for understanding the rest of the passage.

               First note the statement of verse 18. Question? When did Christ suffer for sin...was put to death, but made alive (quickened) by the Spirit? Clearly, that happened 2000 years ago when Christ Jesus made His atoning sacrifice for our sins on the cross.

               Now note the first word in Verse 19. It is the preposition “by” ( Greek - ‘su’ ) . The use of this preposition means “a primary preposition denoting (fixed) position (in place, time or state), and (by implication) instrumentality (medially or constructively).” Therefore, “by” is used to make specific reference to a specific time. It tells us when the event being mentioned occurred.

               Part of the confusion many have as to understanding the verse is not taking this into consideration.

               So the verse is saying that atonement, which was preached to the people “in prison,” was, in time, accomplished when Christ suffered and died on the cross. Verse 20 says these people in prison were “sometimes” disobedient. Again this is a reference to time. The Greek word is “pote”, an indefinite adverb which means “some time.” The rest of the sentence modifies the adverb and tells us the “sometimes” was the former period before the flood. It says they were “disobedient” at that time and it states that time was when Noah was building the ark.

               So the verses are saying that it was Noah who preached unto them Jesus Christ for the 120 years he was building the ark. Of course Noah did not know Jesus’s name, but he certainly knew of the Messiah and of God ’s promised redemption and he faithfully preached that for a hundred and twenty years. Noah preached righteousness but his message was rejected. 2 Peter 2:5 states that Noah was a preacher of righteousness and Genesis 6:3 says he did so for 120 years. So, Noah being warned of the coming flood, preached salvation to the antediluvians to believe God and thereby save themselves. It was Noah who preached Christ to those that perished in the Flood, not Jesus Christ. And the “spirits in prison” are those that rejected God’s message preached by Noah. At their deaths they went to Hades and are there now awaiting the final Great White Throne Judgment of Revelation 20:15-18.

               To correctly interpret God’s word we must do so observing the context and the analogy of the faith. That means that God does not contradict Himself stating in one place one thing and in another, something that contradicts His other statement. Hebrews 9:25-27 specifically states...”And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment.” (Hebrews 9:27). That is an emphatic statement of God and it has a direct bearing on understanding 1 Peter 3:19.

               God is saying no one gets a second chance at salvation. When a person dies their lives end with a relationship with the Lord in salvation or in rebellion and its resulting damnation. Their eternal destiny is determined then and there is no further recourse.

               If we accept the understanding that Jesus literally went to Hades and preached to the antediluvians why did He do so? They were already condemned having rejected God’s offer of salvation by Noah. Did, as some mistakenly conclude, Jesus literally go to Hades to offer them salvation? The answer is a resounding ....no, that is not possible because God says there is no second chance after death. Hebrews 9:27 precludes such an interpretation. Also, why would Jesus go to them...and not others throughout history who died in their sins? Ignoring other passages which have a bearing on the meaning of the passage brings about confusion. But, there is no confusion if we interpret the statement in its context and within the analogy of the faith.

               When the Gospel is preached today....Jesus Christ is there through the ministry of the Holy Spirit. It is He that brings conviction and allows men to respond to God’s offer. That is the way it has always been as no one comes to the Father, but by Jesus Christ and only when the Father draws him (John 6:44). That includes the antediluvians and everyone from all time.

               But we must not stop at this verse 20, because the discourse is not finished and it explains another grossly misinterpreted statement of verse 21. "The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him." (1 Peter 3:21-22)

               Some try to use 1 Peter 3:20-22 to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation. They focus on the first phrase "The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us" and ignore the rest of the verse which says " which says "(not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ." The second is a parenthetical statement made immediately to clarify any idea that baptism saves anyone. The statement clearly is speaking of simply washing with water and the act of being immersed in water. Water washes off filth and to make sure that no one makes the false implication that baptism saves, Peter plainly states he is not talking about baptism a being part of cleansing.

               He says, he is NOT talking about the act of immersion as saving us. It is absolutely dishonest to use this verse in teaching the act of baptism (getting immersed or washed in water) to support baptismal regeneration. Baptism here is shown as an anti-type of Noah being delivered by the water. It was Noah's faith in God that saved him and his family (Hebrews 10:7). Noah was saved out of the water because of his faith which was of his "good conscience." Being in the flood waters did not save Noah. It was the ark...that physically saved him and his family....not the act of being in the waters of the flood. That is so clear how could anyone misunderstand that plain statement.

               The statement ends saying one is saved, . "by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him." (1 Peter 3:22b) Remember what the word “by” means as earlier explained. It does not say that baptism saves or is necessary for salvation. Salvation is wholly the work of Jesus Christ, God incarnate in man who suffered, died and was resurrect for our salvation. Thus twice in the one sentence Peter refutes the idea that baptism is necessary for salvation. Where in the Bible does God say that man's participation is necessary for salvation? A man is told to believe and accept God's truth and promise. He is to accept Jesus Christ's sacrifice and payment for sin alone. Man is a sinner under the condemnation of sin. The condemned man cannot save himself. If he a man is saved from his criminal act it will be by the act of the sentencing judge who sets aside the penalty. The guilty man cannot do some act and redeem himself. In human law a man may be spared the penalty of his crime, but he is always branded as a sinner. Romans 8:1 declares "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." (Romans 8:1) God proclaims the once sinner, no longer a sinner, but under no stigma or condemnation. He is no longer a sinner, but a regenerated child of God.

               So the confusion disappears when we properly let the Bible interpret itself.


    Answer:    The Explanation of the Supposed Contradiction between Acts 9:7 and 22:9

           Acts 9: There was a light that shined on him from heaven Paul fell to the earth hearing a voice saying, "Saul Saul, why persecute thou me?"(v4)

      Paul responds "And he said, Who art thou, Lord?" (V5)

      The Lord says...", I am Jesus whom thou persecutest: it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks."

      Paul trembling asks...Lord what will you have me do?(v6)

      The Lord says, ", Arise, and go into the city, and it shall be told thee what thou must do." (V6)

      And the men which journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice, but seeing no man. (Acts 9:7)

    Acts 22: Light from heaven around Paul falls to the earth, hearing saying. "Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me?" (v7)

      Paul responds...Who are thou...

      The Lord respond, " I am Jesus of Nazareth, whom thou persecutest." (v8)

      " And they that were with me saw indeed the light, and were afraid; but they heard not the voice of him that spake to me." (Acts 22:9)

    Acts 26: "And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks." (Acts 26:14)

      Note they all fell to the ground. They a voice speaking to Paul.

      Jesus asks ...."Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks."

      Paul responds, "And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest." (Acts 26:15)

    The sequence of events as recorded in the three accounts:

      1. There was the light that everyone with Paul saw. (Acts 9:3; 22:6; 26:13)

      2. Paul says he hears the voice (Acts 9:4; 22:7; 26:14)

      3. Those with Paul heard the voice, but did not see who was speaking. (Acts 9: 7; 22:9)

      4. They heard not the voice of him that spake to me. (Acts 22:9)

      3. They all fall to the ground afraid. (Acts 9:4-5; 26:14)

      4. Jesus begins to speak to Paul. (Acts 9:5; 22:7; 25:15)

      5. Paul responds and asks Jesus what he should do. (Acts 9:6; 22:10)

      6. Paul respond "Who are thou Lord?" (Acts 26:15)

    Explanation:

             They all fell to the ground when the light appeared. Acts 22:9, says the the men with Paul heard the "sound" of the voice, but did not see who was speaking. Further, did not hear the actual words Christ was saying to Paul, but only unintelligible sound.

             The Greek word in Acts 22:7, 9 word voice is the word "phone" and means "a sound." It can be used both of hearing speech and is used in John 3:8, of hearing just sound. In Acts 19:34, the same word is used of the shout of the mob against Paul. In Acts 22:22, it is translated "voice" and refers also to the shouting of the mob to kill Stephen. In Acts 12:22, the same word is used and refers not to the actual words, but to the sound of speech. "And the people gave a shout [epiphoneo], saying, It is the voice phone of a god, and not of a man." (Acts 12:22)

                      Rules of interpretation applied:

    1. Interpret in the Analogy of the Faith. If there seems to be a contradiction, the problem is not in the text, but in our understanding of it. The Bible does not contradict its self.

    2. Follow the customary uses of the words.


     
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